Results
#1. During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to :
PRIMARY AREA IN INITITAL APPROACH SEGMENT-300 METER
PRIMARY AREA INTERMEDIATE APPROACH SEGMENT-150 METER
#2. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
- Intermediate Phase involves continuing the climb, typically straight ahead, though turns up to 15° are permitted.
- Minimum Obstacle Clearance (MOC) in this segment is 30 m, extending to the first point where 50 m (164 ft) clearance is achieved and maintained.
- The required climb gradient is 2.5%, paralleling the Obstacle Identification Surface (OIS).
#3. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
- Intermediate Phase involves continuing the climb, typically straight ahead, though turns up to 15° are permitted.
- Minimum Obstacle Clearance (MOC) in this segment is 30 m, extending to the first point where 50 m (164 ft) clearance is achieved and maintained.
- The required climb gradient is 2.5%, paralleling the Obstacle Identification Surface (OIS).
#4. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is :
Final Phase:
- It starts where 50 m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is first achieved and can be maintained.
- It ends at the point where a new approach, holding, or a return to en route flight begins.
- Full turns may be specified during this phase.
#5. An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to find the survivors of an aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an “”X””.This indicates :

#6. As a cause of accidents, the human factor
#7. Hyperventilation causes
Hyperventilation causes a lack of carbon dioxide in the blood (hypocapnia). This happens because rapid breathing expels carbon dioxide faster than it is produced, leading to dizziness, tingling, and other symptoms. It does not cause acidosis, as that would require an increase in carbon dioxide or acid in the blood.
#8. Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus?
Gravity and linear acceleration
The otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus respond to gravity (static force) and linear acceleration (dynamic force). They do not detect angular acceleration, which is sensed by the semicircular canals.
#9. The otoliths in the inner ear are sensitive to:
The otolith organs (saccule and utricle) in the inner ear detect linear accelerations and gravitational forces, helping with balance and spatial orientation.
#10. When accelerating forward the otoliths in the utriculus/sacculus will
During forward acceleration, the otoliths in the utricle and saccule shift backward due to inertia. This stimulates the vestibular system, creating the illusion of climbing (known as the somatogravic illusion). Pilots may mistakenly push the nose down, leading to an unintended descent.
#11. The minimum vertical distance from clouds for VFR flights in controlled airspace must be
The minimum vertical distance from clouds for Visual Flight Rules (VFR) flight within controlled airspace is 1,000 feet.
This is according to standard aviation regulations in many regions, including the FAA in the United States. Specifically:
- Vertical distance from clouds: 1,000 feet above or below the cloud layer.
- Horizontal distance from clouds: 1,500 meters
#12. When a RADAR operators says the following to an aircraft:
#13. If an intercepted aircraft cannot communicate in a common language with the interceptor, which phrase should be pronounced by the Intercepted aircraft to indicate inability to comply.

#14. When two aircraft of the same category are on a converging path, what action should be taken?
Surface Movement of Aircraft. In the case of danger of collision between two aircraft
taxiing on the movement area (see definition) of an aerodrome, the following shall apply:
• Approaching head on. Both stop or where practicable alter course to the right to keep well
clear.
• Converging. The one that has the other on its right shall give way. (Stop or turn to pass
behind).
• Overtaking. The aircraft being overtaken has the right of way. The overtaking aircraft is to
keep well clear of the other aircraft.

#15. When operating in airspace where VFR are allowed, if the pilot-in-command of an IFR flight decides to continue under visual flight rules until reaching the destination, what procedure applies?
When a pilot elects to change from IFR (Instrument Flight Rules) to VFR (Visual Flight Rules), the following procedure should be followed.
- The pilot should notify the ATS (Air Traffic Services) authority of the cancellation of the IFR flight using the specific phrase: “cancelling my IFR flight.” This is crucial for ensuring that the ATS is aware of the pilot’s intention to switch flight rules.
- Updating Flight Plan: After notifying the ATS, the pilot should communicate the necessary changes to the current flight plan to reflect the change to VFR conditions.
- ATC Acknowledgment: Upon receiving the cancellation notification, ATC will respond by confirming the cancellation with a message that includes the time, such as “IFR cancelled at … (time).” This confirmation is important for maintaining clear communication between the pilot and air traffic control.
#16. Air Traffic Service unit means:
An Air Traffic Service (ATS) unit refers to any of the following:
- Air Traffic Control (ATC) units (such as area control centers, approach control units, or aerodrome control towers).
- Flight Information Centers (FIC), which provide information services to ensure the safety and efficiency of air navigation.
- Air Services reporting offices, where flight plans are filed and relevant information is communicated to air traffic services.
#17. At the same cruising altitude, when navigation aids allow frequent position and speed checks, and the leading aircraft is at least 40 knots faster than the following aircraft, what is the minimum required longitudinal separation based on time?
The separation minima between aircraft on the same track can vary depending on the navigation aids available and the true airspeed difference between the aircraft. Here’s a summary of the basic standards:
- 15 minutes: The standard separation when navigation aids don’t allow frequent position and speed determination.
- 10 minutes: If navigation aids permit frequent checks of position and speed, the separation can be reduced to 10 minutes.
- 5 minutes: This can be applied if aircraft have departed from the same aerodrome, passed the same en-route reporting point, or reported over a fix located relative to the departure point. However, the preceding aircraft must have a true airspeed (TAS) of 20 knots or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
- 3 minutes: The separation can be further reduced to 3 minutes if the speed difference between the aircraft is 40 knots or more.
#18. If the crew of an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome reports “field in sight,” a clearance for a visual approach may be granted only under certain conditions.
- Separation Responsibility: Air Traffic Control (ATC) is responsible for providing separation between aircraft making a visual approach and all other arriving or departing traffic.
- Transfer of Control: For arriving IFR traffic in Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC), the Approach Controller will transfer control of the aircraft to the Aerodrome Controller at a designated point during the approach.
#19. Friction Co efficient due to snow – in how many segments is runway divided based on friction level.
A runway is typically divided into three equal segments (touchdown, mid, and rollout zones) when reporting friction levels due to snow or other contaminants. These segments help assess the condition of the runway along its entire length to provide pilots with necessary information for safe landing and takeoff operations
#20. When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:
The overall SSR system has several different ‘modes’ of operation. The response will be Mode Alpha with the addition of Mode Charlie. In addition, the military have other modes of operation of SSR which overlap with civilian usage. In order to correctly indicate the required response code, the mode as well as the code should always be specified. The pilot is to respond with the mode and code.
#21. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-comm shall Indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
• Emergency A/7700
• Radio failure A/7600
• Unlawful interference A/7500
#22. What is the minimum gradient for missed approach procedure?
The design of the missed approach consists of the three phases:
- Initial
- Intermediate
- Final

- The nominal missed approach climb gradient is 2.5%. Gradients of 3%, 4% or 5% may be used for aircraft of which the climb performance permits an operational advantage to be thus obtained and this is indicated on the instrument approach chart.
#23. The factors considered in the calculations of DA/DH are:
The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the approach or missed approach paths including an allowance for aircraft speed and height loss on any go-around, plus a margin for operational factors.
This approach ensures that all potential obstacles are taken into account, providing a safe margin for the aircraft during both the approach and the missed approach phases.
#24. Minimum trip fuel required shall be the amount of fuel required to enable the aeroplane to fly from take-off or the point of in-flight re-planning,
Trip fuel is the amount of fuel required to enable the aeroplane to fly from take-off or the point of in-flight re-planning, until landing at the destination aerodrome taking into account the operating conditions.
#25. The letter
Light (L) aircraft are defined as those with a Maximum Certificated Takeoff Weight (MCTOW) of less than 7,000 kg. Examples of such aircraft include:
- Bandeirante
- Metro 3
- Cessna 402 and 421
- Islander
- Nomad
- Piper Navajo
- King Air
- Beech 99
#26. Minimum vertical distance from cloud for VFR flight within controlled space is.
To fly under VFR (Visual Flight Rules), Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must be maintained, as defined by altitude, flight visibility, and distance from clouds. These requirements vary based on the airspace class:
- Flight visibility is the forward visibility from the flight deck of an aircraft.
- Distance from clouds (both horizontally and vertically) ensures safety by keeping visual separation from potential IFR traffic or terrain.
- These conditions apply differently across Class A through G airspace, which dictates the level of control and rules under Air Traffic Services.


#27. At holding point ATC transmits “cleared for immediate take off”, what does it mean?
The correct interpretation is:
“Taxi immediately to the runway and commence takeoff without stopping.”
When ATC uses the phrase “cleared for immediate takeoff”, it is an instruction for the aircraft to expedite the takeoff roll without delay after reaching the runway. This clearance is typically issued when there is traffic approaching the runway, and immediate action is required to maintain safe separation.
Key points:
- The aircraft should not wait to complete additional checks on the runway.
- If the crew cannot comply, they must inform ATC immediately.
#28. Types of Hypoxia are:
The types of hypoxia include:
- Stagnant hypoxia: This occurs when the blood flow to tissues is insufficient, meaning that oxygen is not delivered efficiently, even if the oxygen content of the blood is normal. This can happen in cases like heart failure or shock.
- Anaemic hypoxia: This type of hypoxia happens when the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced, often due to a lack of hemoglobin or a low red blood cell count, such as in anemia. Even though there may be adequate oxygen in the lungs, the blood cannot effectively transport it to tissues.
#29. Who is responsible for the issuing of clearance to achieve the safe and expeditions flow of a traffic to aircraft on the maneuvering area and to prevent collisions between aircraft and obstructions on the movement area?
The Aerodrome Controller is responsible for issuing clearances to ensure the safe and efficient flow of traffic on the maneuvering area (runways and taxiways). This includes preventing collisions between aircraft and obstructions on the movement area and coordinating aircraft and vehicle operations within their area of responsibility.
#30. Vitamins are essential for good night vision, therefore:
Pilots should maintain a balanced diet with sufficient vitamin A, as it is crucial for good night vision. Vitamin A helps the retina adjust to low light, which is essential for pilots. Excessive intake does not significantly improve vision, and vitamin D does not affect night vision. A deficiency in vitamin A can impair night vision.
#31. Which of the following is NOT an approved method of radar identification using SSR?
- Squawk handover from another radar controller and Use of the IDENT function are both valid methods of radar identification using Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR). When a radar controller receives an aircraft’s squawk code from another controller, or if the aircraft uses the IDENT function to make its position clearer, it helps establish radar identification.
- Track observation and position reports, however, is not a method used for radar identification via SSR. These methods are typically used with primary radar or as supplementary information to verify an aircraft’s identity, but they don’t directly involve SSR methods.


