MISCELLANEOUS 4903-5258 - Dgca question bank for pilots

Results

#1. Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:

70% of the landing distance available.

60% of the landing distance available.

80% of the landing distance available.

50% of the landing distance available.

#2. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

only during take off and landing.

only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety.

from take off to landing.

while at their station.

#3. Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a operations manual and also issue the amendments to keep it up to date?

Aircraft producer.

Owner of the aircraft.

ATS authority of the state of registry.

Aircraft operator.

#4. The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less than :3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days

6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days

6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months

3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days

3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months

#5. The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least :

60 minutes.

30 minutes.

15 minutes.

2 hours.

#6. A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than :

100 NM

200 NM

50 NM

400 NM

#7. On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to :

400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed.

300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed.

200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed.

100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed.

#8. The minimum time track is a track defined for :

a period of 12 hours

a period of 24 hours

a given travel

aircraft flying in MNPS airspace

#9. The term decision height (DH) is used for :

a conventional approach.

an indirect approach.

a precision approach.

a conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver.

#10. Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (Annex 6, Part I)

The operator.

The captain.

The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot.

The company's cargo technicians.

#11. For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that : (Annex 6, Part I)

Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.

Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.

Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.

Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.

#12. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are: (Annex 6, Part I)

At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

#13. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)

The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.

Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.

All the flight crew be on board.

Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board.

#14. The operator will include in the operations manual a list of minimum required equipment approved by : (Annex 6, Part I)

The country where the aircraft was manufactured.

The country of the operator.

The country where the aircraft is operated.

It is not mandatory that such a book be approved by aviation authorities.

#15. Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped: (Annex 6, Part I)

Only as is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights.

With more anti-icing and/or de-icing devices (if one expects icy conditions).

As is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights, and such aircraft must also possess indicators of attitude and course, along with a precise barometric altimeter.

As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument flight rules.

#16. The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :

the manufacturer

the operator

the aircraft manufacturer's list

the aircraft state of registry

#17. The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :

the operator.

the aircraft manufacture'rs list.

the manufacturer.

the aircraft state of registry.

#18. The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of :

140°.

110°.

70°.

220°.

#19. Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last :

30 hours of operation.

flight.

25 hours of operation.

48 hours of operation.

#20. For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last :

25 hours of operation.

flight.

30 minutes of operation.

48 hours of operation.

#21. On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than :

12 000 ft

13 000 ft

11 000 ft

10 000 ft

#22. On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is between :

10 000 ft and 12 000 ft

10 000 ft and 13 000 ft

11 000 ft and 13 000 ft

11 000 ft and 12 000 ft

#23. On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurization, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than :

11 000 ft.

12 000 ft.

10 000 ft.

13 000 ft.

#24. For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than :

13 000 ft

29 000 ft

10 000 ft

25 000 ft

#25. A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off gross weight is greater than :

14 000 kg

20 000 kg

5 700 kg

27 000 kg

#26. The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight and located at the rear of the aircraft, is :

110°

140°

70°

220°

#27. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will first see the :

red steady light

white steady light

green flashing light

green steady light

#28. The JAR-OPS is based on :

The air transport rules

The Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR)

ICAO Appendix 6

A JAA guideline

#29. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right right, will first see the :

green steady light

red steady light

white steady light

green flashing light

#30. The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located at the tip of the left wing is :

140°

70°

110°

220°

#31. For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of :

0.6

0.7

0.5

0.8

#32. For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on at alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of :

0.5

0.6

0.7

0.8

#33. The validity period of a “”certificate of airworthiness”” varies with the conditions under which the aircraft is maintained.If the maintenance is carried out according to an approved programme and done in a maintenance shop approved by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity period is:

three years for public transport aircraft and one year for the others.

three years.

three years for public transport aircraft and five years for the others.

three years if the aircraft has not undergone major modifications.

#34. The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:

the aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over them.

the aircraft used by police, customs and defense departments.

the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil aircraft.

the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil commercial transport aircraft.

#35. Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the :

flight manual.

operation manual.

journey logbook.

operational flight plan.

#36. An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the :

ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan.

flight plan processing.

operation flight plan.

flight route sheet.

#37. An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:

a copy of the calculated take-off performances.

the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity.

the aircraft equipment report (logbook).

a copy of the weight and balance sheet.

#38. After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:

30 days

90 days

60 days.

45 days

#39. During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a passenger is using a portable device suspected to disburb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain:

authorizes its use except during take-off and landing phases.

must not authorize any person to use such a device on board.

authorizes its use during the whole flight phase.

may authorize the use of this device, as an exception.

#40. Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It contains more particularly:1 – the weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination,2 – one copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet,3 – copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft’s materiel report,4 – the en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator,5 – notification for special loadings,6 – for each flight, details of the day’s performances and limitations with completed charts.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1,2,3,4,5,6

2,4

2,3,4,5

1,3,5

#41. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least :

12 months

3 months

15 months

24 months

#42. The captain is asked by the authority to present the documents of the aircraft. He

can request a delay of 48 hours.

can refuse to present them.

can only do so after having consulted the operator.

must do so, within a reasonable period of time.

#43. The “”NO SMOKING”” sign must be illuminated :

during climb and descent.

in each cabin section if oxygen is being carried.

when oxygen is being supplied in the cabin.

during take off and landing.

#44. A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :

a decision height of at least 200 ft

a decision height of at least 50 ft

no decision height

a decision height of at least 100 ft

#45. A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with :

a runway visual range of at least 50 m

no runway visual range limits

a runway visual range of at least 200 m

a runway visual range of at least 350 m

#46. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :550 m

350 m

800 m

550 m

500 m

#47. A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

200 m

100 m

250 m

50 m

#48. A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

250 m

75 m

150 m

200 m

#49. A category I precision approach (CAT I) has :

a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.

a decision height equal to at least 100 ft.

a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.

no decision height.

#50. A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :

2400 m

1600 m

3600 m

1500 m

#51. A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :

3600 m

2400 m

1600 m

1500 m

#52. A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

1500 m

3600 m

2400 m

1600 m

#53. A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :

2400 m

1500 m

1600 m

3600 m

#54. During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than :

2 m (7 ft) below the airdrome altitude

2 m (7 ft) above the airdrome altitude

4 m (14 ft) below the airdrome altitude

4 m (14 ft) above the airdrome altitude

#55. The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account :1. equipment available for navigation2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways3. composition of the flight crew4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas5. facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditionsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1,2,4,5

1,2,3,4,5

2,4,5

2,3,5

#56. When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor of:

1.45

1.15

1.3

1.5

#57. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are :

MDH=400 ft and visibility=1500 m

MDH=600 ft and visibility=2400 m

MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 m

MDH=700 ft and visibility=2600 m

#58. JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that :

for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1 000 m at least

for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250 m at least

for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3 050 m. (10 000 ft) is 5 km at least (clear of cloud)

special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km

#59. In accordance with JAR OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A Operation, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR (runway visual range) no less than :

250 m

200 m

230 m

300 m

#60. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operationg Minima), an operator must ensure that system minima for “”non-precision approach procedures””, which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:

ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ft

NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft

VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft

VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft

#61. In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III B operations, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200 m but no less than :

150 m

75 m

100 m

50 m

#62. The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 knots. The aircraft is flown by a single pilot.The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold mid and end of runway.The approach minimums for runway 06 are : DH = 300 feet, Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres.The weather conditions are : horizontal visibility (HV) 900 metres and ceiling 200 feet.Is take-off possible?

No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's approach procedure.

Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM.

No, visibility being below 1 200 metres.

Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the approach procedure.

#63. The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum horizontal visibility required for take-off is:

150 m.

200 m.

300 m.

150 m if a threshold RVR is available.

#64. The information to consider for a standard straight-in approach is :1 – the horizontal visibility2 – the ceiling3 – the minimum descending altitude (MDA)4 – the decision altitude (DA)Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

04-Jan

2001-02-03

2001-02-04

03-Jan

#65. For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:

30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.

30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.

60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.

60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.

#66. During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew’s operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:

the FAF.

the outer marker (OM).

the middle marker.

the start final descent point (glide slope intersection).

#67. The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-precision direct IFR approach with the following operational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the runway are given by the controller…

the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold and mid-runway RVR are higher than 750 metres.

the pilot may start the final approach if the three RVR are higher than 750 metres.

the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is higher than 750 metres.

flying a non-precision approach, the pilot may start the final approach only if he has a meteorological visibility higher than 750 metres. RVR are to be taken into account only for precision approaches.

#68. An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational minima are : MDH = 360 feet, horizontal visibility = 1 500 metres :Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 500 metres :The pilot may start the final approach…

whatever the ceiling given by ATC.

if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 360 feet.

if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet.

if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet during the day and 360 feet at night.

#69. In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima – General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories.The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3.Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is :

#70. Supplemental oxygen is used to :

provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation

protect a crew who fights a fire

provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation

assist a passenger with breathing disorders

#71. The minimum flight crew for night transport of passengers or according to the Instrument flight rules is :

2 pilots for turbo-jet aircraft and turbo-prop aircraft with more than 9 passenger seats

2 pilots for any aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or having more than 9 passenger seats

1 pilot for any aircraft weighing less than 5.7 tons, provided that the maximum certified number of passenger seats is less than 9

2 pilots for any turbo-prop aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or for any turbo-jet aircraft

#72. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-command unless :

he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60 days

he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days

he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

#73. JAR-OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless :

he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 90 days.

he has operated as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at the controls during takeoff and landing of the type to be used in the preceding 90 days.

he has carried out as-pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at lest three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 30 days

he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command or as a co-pilot at the controls of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days.

#74. In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be :

3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

#75. An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot).The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old).The boarding of all passengers is:

authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt. No other particular precautions are necessary.

forbidden.

authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat, using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if necessary.

authorized, providing both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to relase thir seat bel

#76. In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual inidicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ?

if the aircraft is a twin-engine.

never.

if part or all the flight is done at night.

if the flight lasts more than 3 hours.

#77. The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records:1 – the training2 – the test results3 – a log of flying hours4 – a summary of the training by reference periodWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers?

2001-02-03

03-Fev

1 - 2 - 3 - 4

04-Mar

#78. An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft planned for the flight is a performance class B aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or its alternate route scheduled from this initial route, to reach a climb rate of at least :

300 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous power.

300ft/min with all engines operating at maximum continuous power.

500 ft/min with all engines operating at maximum cruise power.

500 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous power.

#79. When a course is plotted at minimum time route, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot) a vector KK’ which is equal to:mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone

wind at K'.

wind at K.

mean wind up to the next ground isochrone.

mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone

#80. A minimum time track is a :

great circle track

track determined according to weather conditions

rhumb line

spherical capable flight segment

#81. On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :

45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

30 minutes at cruising speed

45 minutes at cruising speed

30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

#82. On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :

2 hours with normal cruising consumption

2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

30 minutes with normal cruising consumption

#83. When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding :

1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines

2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine

1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine

2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines

#84. When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding :

2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating

1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engine inoperative

1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all enginesoperating

2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative

#85. According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twin-engined aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19 passagers must be planned in such a way that on one engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within :

30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

#86. According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions stipulated in the regulations are effective for at least :

2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival

1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival

3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival

3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival

#87. A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have :

increased manoeuvring limits

increased flight envelope

increased Mach number stability

reduced range

#88. For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude increase. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of chosing cruising levels which increase during the flight in order to fly :

about the lock-on altitude

between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altitude

about the optimum altitude

just below the optimum altitude

#89. If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:

rhumb line.

curve of some type or other.

great circle.

spherical flight segment.

#90. An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfecly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000°.The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true heading equal to 095°. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode.If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at Q will be :

328°.

345°.

003°.

334°.

#91. A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial navigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching to “”magnetic mode””, the compass heading is 220°. The INS position at this moment is 76°N 180°W. The magnetic variation on the chart is 10°E.The compass shift on this heading at this point in time is:

+5°.

-15°.

+15°.

-5°.

#92. You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B (60°N 020°E).The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A.The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1h30 min with a zero wind, is equal to :

080°.

066°.

076°.

085°

#93. A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the meridian 054°W, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.An aircraft is following a true course of 330°.At position 80°N 140°E, its grid heading (GH) with this system will be :136°.

276°.

316°.

136°.

164°.

#94. On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true North pole, the “”true”” orientation of the great circle linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°. The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is :

298°.

301°.

295°.

292°.

#95. The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of the Antarctic regions. A grid, printed over it, its aligned with meridian 180°, the grid North in the direction of the geographic North (non standard grid).The grid course followed by the aircraft is Rg=280°, the position is 80°S 100°E.The true course followed at this moment is :

260°.

000°.

080°.

100°.

#96. The inertreal navigtion system (INS) indicates:Position: 71° 55.1’N 094°55.3’WDrift: 6°L (left)The route followed in order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station used:RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6’N 094°55.3W), this VOR has North set on the local geographic meridian.The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic North Pole).The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at this moment:(the distance DME is in the box)

#97. The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro does not comprise a rate correction device.The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59°57’N 010°30’E is switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading 120°. A technical problem delays take off until 16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, was not reset prior to take off.The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be :

+32.5°.

+13°.

+73.5°.

-32.5°.

#98. On a polar stereographic chart where the earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is :

4.0 NM.

9.2 NM.

30 NM.

4.0 NM.

#99. In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart whose printed over grid is parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of geographic North along this meridian.The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is 110°, the grid route at this moment is :

060°.

240°.

110°.

340°

#100. At 18h40min UTC, a complete failure of the inertial systems of an aircraft flying on the LONDON- ANCHORAGE line occurs in the geographic North pole region. The wind is nil, the grid heading at this moment is 315°. The crew then uses the Sun to continue the flight. The bearing of the Sun on occurence of the failure is :NOTE: The time equation is nil. The chart used is a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the zero meridian, the Grid North is in direction of the geographic North pole.

325°.

035°.

180°.

000°.