R#D B#I*D REGULATION QUESTION BANK - Dgca question bank for pilots

Results

#1. Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during flight:

When flying in and out of clouds and the pilot maintains good instrument cross check

When flying in light rain below the ceiling

If the brain receives conflicting information and the pilot does not below the instruments

#2. Item no. 8 Flight Plan:

CHECK ANSWER

Flight rules.

#3. Which symptom is the most dangerous in hypoxia:

CHECK ANSWER

Impaired judgment of a pilot

#4. Which rule to be followed If an aircraft is flying over territory of another state:

CHECK ANSWER

rules of the state of registration

#5. The OCA in Initial approach Segment

150m

300m

Reduces from 300 to 150m

#6. Categories of Instrument approach procedure-

3 Categories(Precision approach, Approach with vertical guidance and Non-precision approach)

4 Categories(Precision approach, Approach with vertical guidance, Approach with lateral guidance, and Non-precision approach)

2 Categories(Precision approach,and Non-precision approach)

#7. Validity of PPL licence :

2 yrs

5 yrs

10yrs

#8. If holder of a license suffers from any illness which won’t allow him to undertake the functions of his

CHEDCK ANSWER

license for more than 15 days needs to inform the authority.

#9. Notam Series A:

Domestic flights

More than 2 hrs

30 minutes to 2 Hrs

#10. When visual maneuvering (Circling area) is established around an aerodrome for a runway the obstacle clearance is determined:

For each category of aircraft and it may be different for each category of aircraft

For category C,D and E only

For category A and B aircrafts only

#11. Hypoxia- –

CHECK ANSWER

Lack of oxygen(Symptoms-cyanosis(Blue lips and nails)

#12. What is Time Of Useful Consciousness-

CHECK ANSWER

The length of time during which an individual can act with both mental and physical efficiency and alertness. Measured from the moment at which he loses oxygen supply.

#13. Preference will be given to

CHECK ANSWER

Vehicle towing A/C

#14. DER

check answer

Departure end of the runway.

#15. Photography is restricted at:

Military Aerodrome

Civil aerodromes

Terminal buildings

#16. Chop-

CHECK ANSWER

Type of turbulence that causes rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness

#17. STRESS LEVEL(DECREASING ORDER):

CHECK ANSWER

Death of spouse, Divorce, Martial separation, Death of close family members, Injury/Illness, Marriage , Loss of job

#18. At holding point, ATC transmits “Cleared for immediate take off” What does it mean?

Taxi immediately to runway and commence rolling take off

Take off within 30 seconds of receiving the clearance

Take off immediately after completing all mandatory power checks

#19. QUJ-

True bearing from the station

True bearing to the station

#20. ATIS broadcasts contain essential information, such as –

CHECK ANSWER

current weather information, active runways, available approaches, and any other information required by the pilots, such as important NOTAMs.

#21. MEHT

CHECK ANSWER

Minimum Eye Height (Over Threshold)

#22. The air report contains the following area:

Air Temperature , Turbulence, Surface wind & Aircraft Icing

All of the above are correct

Air Temperature, Turbulence, Upper winds & Aircraft Icing

Turbulence, upper winds & Surface Temperature

#23. Euphoria can cause :

Both of the above

Impaired Judgement

Can prone to human error

#24. RVSM :

from 5000 -FL410

FL290-FL410

from 5000- 25000

#25. MEL stands for-

Max equipment list

Mach equipment list

Minimum equipment list

#26. Petroleum bulk is petroleum in receptable, Which exceed——lts

500

1500

1000

900

#27. The demolition of buildings and trees act came into effect in the year

1934

1954

1994

1937

#28. Annexure 14 :

CHECK ANSWER

Aerodrome

#29. When is the separation of 1 min after immediate take off

30 degrees at least

Continue straight

45 degrees at least

#30. FSTD

FULL MOTION SIMULATOR

FULL MOTION SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICES

FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICES

#31. UTC-

CHECK ANSWER

Coordinated universal time

#32. Jet Streams-

CHECK ANSWER

narrow current of winds in the upper troposphere.

#33. Montreal Convention was signed in

CHECK ANSWER

1971

#34. When Mach no. technique is applied, minimum longitudinal separation between turbojet aircraft on the same track, whether in level, climbing or descending flight shall be-

#35. VOR Accuracy-

CHECK ANSWER

+/- 5 degree

#36. When landing after a heavy aircraft the best technique to avoid wake turbulence on final should be:

To remain above the glide path of the preceding aircraft all the way till over the threshold

To fly away offset from centre line and below the glide path of preceding aircraft

To remain below the glide path of the preceding aircraft separated by 1000ft

#37. An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:

+/- 500ft of the assigned level

+/- 200ft of the assigned level

+/- 300ft of the assigned level

#38. Barotrauma

CHECK ANSWER

Pain due to difference in pressure existing between middle & ambient ear(Blocked eustachian tube)

#39. Smoking in the aircraft is permitted by the

CHECK ANSWER

certificate of airworthiness

#40. RVR is a measure of –

CHECK ANSWER

Atmospheric transparency, intensity of R/W lights and background illuminations.

#41. Prohibited areas. Aircraft shall not be flown in a prohibited area as been specified in :

CHECK ANSWER

Schedule I of Aircraft Rules 1937.

#42. What are the types of AIPs-

check answer

GEN, ENR, AD

#43. Normal BP of human:

140/80

100/80

120/80

#44. ETOPS:

CHECK ANSWER

Extended -range Twin engine operations Performance standard.

#45. RED Flare gun:

CHECK ANSWER

Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being

#46. STRESS SYMPTOMS:

CHECK ANSWER

Flushed skin, Dilated Pupil, High breathing rate, Perspiration

#47. A pilot can perform a Maximum flying hours in a day:

CHECK ANSWER

10 hours

#48. The aircraft Rules:

1937

#49. Estimated surface friction, ————————————- as seen from pilot’s point of view needs to be informed, if needed.

for each HALF of a runway

full length

for each third of a runway

#50. A normal blood pressure level is

CHECK ANSWER

120/80 mmHg

#51. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centreline within:

25 degree

15 degree

30 degree

#52. Letter ‘W’ in ATS route designators indicate:

International Routes

Domestic routes

None of the above.

Regional Routes

#53. President of ICAO is elected every:

3 yrs

10 yrs

1 yrs

#54. The aircraft act :

CHECK ANSWER

1934

#55. What does NOTAM(R) Means-

CHECK ANSWER

NOTAM REPLACE.

#56. If central government is making a runway what should they see first:

Friction of the runway

Adequate terrain clearance from the threshold

Adequate terrain clearance from the runway

#57. The letter “C” displayed vertical in black against a yellow background indicates the location of –

#58. QDR-

Magnetic bearing to the station

Magnetic bearing from the station

#59. Lapse Rate:

check answer

2 degree/1000ft

#60. PANS-ATM is:

Procedure for navigation Services- Airport traffic management

Procedure for navigation Services- Air traffic management

Procedure for navigation Services- Aeronautical traffic management

#61. A recent report from an aircraft giving a position and/or met report is called

Position report

All of the above

Air report

Met report

#62. Validity of IR-

CHECK ANSWER

1 yr

#63. The reduced visibility up to which a helicopter is permitted to operate at speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacle in time to avoid collision:

1500m

800m

1000m

#64. The registration mark contains letters and numbers for country code and registration mark. What should be added between the country code and registration mark of an aircraft-

Hyphen (-)

Period (.)

#65. In severe turbulence:

Maintain speed

Maintain Both

Maintain Altitude

#66. A pilot can perform a Maximum number of landing in day:

CHECK ANSWER

#67. Lateral separation VOR:

CHECK ANSWER

Both a/c established on radials diverging by 15 deg. & at least one a/c 15NM from facility

#68. If central government is making runway , how much distance it should maintain:

CHECK ANSWER

10 km from the runway

#69. Urgency Message-

MAYDAY MAYDAY

PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN

DECLARE URGENCY

#70. In india ‘W’ airways are earmarked for

Wide area navigation routes

High altitude routes

Domestic routes

“W” Routes in Indian Airspace:
- Managed by the Airports Authority of India (AAI).
- Primarily available for domestic operators only.
- Constructed based on ground-based navigation aids (radio beacons like VORs or NDBs).
Non-RNAV Classification:
- As per ICAO Annex 11, a “W” route is not an Area Navigation (RNAV) route.
- RNAV routes use satellite navigation systems (e.g., GPS, INS) or DME/DME-based navigation, allowing for flexibility in flight paths not tied to ground beacons.
- In contrast, “W” routes rely on point-to-point navigation tied to ground-based beacons.
Structure of “W” Routes:
- Typically direct from one beacon to another.
- Aligns with traditional airway navigation methods, avoiding reliance on advanced RNAV systems.
Operational Implications:
- Exclusivity to domestic operators means international airlines cannot use “W” routes.
- Pilots operating on “W” routes must depend on their aircraft’s ability to receive and navigate using ground-based navigation signals.

#71. Composition of air:

CHECK ANSWER

N- 78% O2 – 21 % Ar- 0.93 % CO2 – 0.036 % & other gases.

#72. Gathering of evidence after an accident is mean only to:

Taking penal actions and to help judges in any civil court proceedings

Know who has was responsible for the accident

Know the real cause of accident

#73. When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined :

For each category of aircraft , and it remains same for each one of them

For each category of aircraft , and it may be different for each one of them

#74. Medium to good Friction coefficient –

CHECK ANSWER

0.39 to 0.36

#75. Minimum age to become instructor:

19 Yrs

18 Yrs

21 Yrs

#76. What defines transition level-

The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude

The lowest flight level available for use above the transition LEVEL

#77. Direction fuel is used as per the discretion of –

PIC

RAMP MANAGER

FIRST OFFICER

#78. RPAS stands for :

CHECK ANSWER

REMOTELY PILOTED AIRCRAFT SYSTEM

#79. In the standard atmosphere FL150 is equivalent to:

4550 mtrs

455 mtrs

15000 mtr

#80. Critical threshold altitude approximately:

32000 ft

22000 ft

21000 ft

#81. Rule no. 67 A of Aircraft Rules,1937 deals with:

CHECK ANSWER

Logbook of flight crew personnel and logging of flight time.

#82. EDTO:

CHECK ANSWER

Extended diversion time operations

#83. Which way to treat for hyperventilation-

CHECK ANSWER

Slowing the rate of breathing or breathing into a paper bag

#84. QTE-

True bearing from the station

True bearing to the station

#85. Eustachian Tube-

CHECK ANSWER

Allows pressure in the middle ear to ear equalize across the ear drum with outsider ambient pressure when climbing or descending

#86. Item no. 15 in Flight plan Cruising speed

TAS (for knots K0120)

TAS (for knots N0120)

#87. What is the name of the condition caused by nitrogen bubbles underskin during decompression

check answer

creeps

#88. VFR flights not permitted above-

FL150

FL120

FL180

#89. AOC/AOP-

Apron operatoring Certificate/Permit

Aerodrome operatoring Certificate

Air operators Certificate/Permit

#90. You are on A/c ATC signaling you flashes of runway and taxi lights. What does it mean?

Stop taxi and return to your position

Return to the apron

Vacate the runway

#91. Item no 7 in flight plan-

CHECK ANSWER

Aircraft Identification

#92. What information is included in the third section of an Air Report?

ETA destination

Spot wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence

Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence

Spot wind, Icing, Cloud above

#93. RNAV abbreviated as –

Rapid Navigation

Performance Navigation

Area Navigation

#94. Hyperventilation/Over Breathing-

CHECK ANSWER

Lung Ventilation in excess of the body’s needs.(Lack of CO2)

#95. ___ helps maintain

check answer

Vestibular apparatus, spatial orientation

#96. Minimum height for VFR flight-

1000ft above MSA in populated areas or towns.

1500ft above highest obstacle in populated areas or towns.

1000ft above highest obstacle in populated areas or towns.

#97. The adverse Effects of G can be delayed by

CHECK ANSWER

tensing the thigh and stomach and easing off the backward pressure on the column.

#98. Procedure design gradient:

5.0%

3.3%

2.4%

A procedure design gradient (PDG) is a published climbing rate that an aircraft must maintain to clear obstacles during departure or go-around procedures. The standard PDG is 3.3% (200 feet per nautical mile), but steeper gradients may be required in challenging terrain

#99. How can a pilot increases his tolerance to +Gz)

Relax the muscles, Ducking the head and lean upper body forward

Tighten shoulder harness

Tightening of muscles, Ducking the head and perform a kind of pressure breathing

Take an upright seat position

#100. Physiological effect take place because of

Pressure Increases with altitude

Pressure decreases with altitude

Linear acceleration

#101. JEPPESEN CHARTS are based on which projection-

CHECK ANSWER

Lambert Conformal Conic Projection.

#102. What is the SSR code for RCF(RADIO COMMUNICATION FAILURE)-

CHECK ANSWER

7600

Remember. I C E

7500 – Interference hijacking

7600 – Comm failure

7700 – Emergency,

2000 – when no instructions given

#103. Call out by pilot monitoring on approach-

check answer

Three Greens(Landing gears down and locked)

#104. With regard to flight time limitations,” Flight time” means:

The time between take off and landing

The time between an aircraft starting to move and coming to a complete stop plus one and a half hour

The total time from when an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off untill comes to rest after flight

#105. OCH for precision approach is defined as-

check answer

the lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold, at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.

#106. Prisoner on board should be carried as per the Aircraft rules :

CHECK ANSWER

24B

#107. Communication Failure (RCF) In IMC:

CHECK ANSWER

Procced in accordance with FPL

#108. NOTAM valid for more than 2 Hours:

CHECK ANSWER

Series A

#109. R/T Calls Distress Messages, Distress Calls & Distress Traffic-

MAYDAY

declaring emergency

PANPAN

#110. CAVOK-

Visibility more than 10 Km, no cloud below 1500m, No CB, No precipitation, No Thunderstorm.

Visibility more 5 Km or more, no cloud below 1500m, No CB, No precipitation, No Thunderstorm.

Visibility 9 Km, no cloud below 1800m, No CB, No precipitation, No Thunderstorm.

#111. Where is the temporary information amended-

check answer

AIP

#112. Repetitive Flight Plan(RPLs) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and

On at least 20 Days consecutively

On at least 10 Occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days

On at least ten consecutive occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days

On at least 20 Occasions

#113. What causes the pressure difference in ear:

Eustachian tube is blocked

Low level of oxygen in the body

Barotrauma is blocked

#114. White dumbbell indicates

A/C required to take off. Take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only.

A/C required to land. Take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only.

#115. AWR( Air borne weather radar) minimum range to be used in air:

CHECK ANSWER

(30-80nm)

#116. Position Report-

check answer

Aircraft identification, Position, Time, Flight Level or Altitude, Next Position and Time Over, Ensuring Significant point.

#117. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 when including an altitude or an height-

check answer

Three Thousand Five Hundred

#118. What does readability scale 3 define-

CHECK ANSWER

Readable with difficulty

#119. Second freedom:

CHECK ANSWER

Right to land for technical reasons (Non-traffic purposes)

#120. Spatial disorientation is :

CHECK ANSWER

when unable to determine position or motion

#121. A flight condition where there are slight changes in Altitude/Attitude

Light Turbulence

Light chop

Moderate Turbulence

#122. Anti Collision light is a light:

Red in colour affixed on top of the control tower

A red light visible 30 degrees above and below the horizon of the aircraft which is visible in all direction

The navigation lights of any aircraft are called anti-collision lights

#123. When QNH is set to QNE:

check answer

Transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent

#124. Maximum age to fly-

65yrs

63yrs

56yrs

#125. What time is used by all flights

CHECK ANSWER

UTC

#126. When the pilot suffers from hypothermia(Loss of cabin heating)

His oxygen need will be raised and his tolerance to hypoxia will be increased

His need for oxygen will be increased as long as he stays conscious

His oxygen need will not be affected

#127. What is CAT( Clear air turbulence):

CHECK ANSWER

Sudden severe turbulence occurring in cloudless regions that causes violent buffeting of aircraft( commonly applied to higher altitude turbulence associated with wind shear)

#128. Hypothermia occurs-

CHECK ANSWER

when your body loses heat faster than it can produce heat, causing a dangerously low body temperature.

#129. Cabotage :

CHECK ANSWER

Domestic air services

#130. Carrying prisoner on board need permission of

CHECK ANSWER

DGCA

#131. Q- Codes – QDM-

Magnetic bearing from the station

Magnetic bearing to the station

#132. Which licence can be issued if Exams passed 10th:

check answer

PPL

#133. Readability scale 5

Readable

Unreadable

Perfectly readable

1	Unreadable
2	Readable now and then
3	Readable with difficulty
4	Readable
5	Perfectly readable

Finish