In Category D airspace, ATC services are provided as follows:

1. IFR flights:
   • Separation is provided between IFR flights only.
   • Traffic information is given regarding VFR flights, and traffic avoidance advice is provided upon request.
2. VFR flights:
   • No separation is provided between VFR flights or between VFR and IFR flights.
   • Traffic information is given for both IFR and other VFR flights, with traffic avoidance advice available on request.

+/- 5 degree

Doc 4444 relates to All of the above.

This document, titled “Procedures for Air Navigation Services – Air Traffic Management (PANS-ATM)”, issued by ICAO, provides comprehensive guidelines on various aspects of air traffic management. It includes:

• Flight level tables: Providing altitudes for flight levels based on pressure settings.
• Position reports: Describing the format and requirements for position reporting during flights.

Thus, Doc 4444 covers both flight level tables and position reporting, along with other procedures for air traffic control and management.

The Tokyo Convention (1963) addresses offences against penal law committed on board an aircraft. It establishes that the State of Registration has jurisdiction over such offences and empowers the aircraft commander to act against acts jeopardizing safety, good order, or discipline. The convention ensures offenders are brought to justice and mandates cooperation among contracting states.

To maintain night vision (or scotopic vision), a pilot should avoid flash blindness, which occurs due to exposure to bright lights, especially in the dark. Smoking can reduce oxygen levels, further affecting night vision. Flashing lights, such as from landing lights or other aircraft, can also hinder the eye’s adjustment to low-light conditions.

Avoid smoking before and during the flight as nicotine can constrict blood vessels, affecting circulation, and oxygen flow, which may impair night vision.

Minimum Obstacle Clearance in Departure Procedures:

1. At the Departure End of the Runway (DER): The minimum obstacle clearance equals zero.
2. Beyond the DER:
   • The clearance increases by 0.8% of the horizontal distance in the direction of flight.
   • This assumes a maximum track divergence of 15°.

Ground/Air Visual Signal Code by Search Parties

• In the absence of defined track guidance, the omni-directional method allows initial departure tracks to be undefined, permitting navigation in any direction once off the runway.
• Pilots must be aware of obstacles in certain sectors, which may restrict departures; published procedures will indicate these restricted sectors.
• The basic procedure requires the aircraft to climb on the extended runway centerline to 120 m (394 ft) above aerodrome elevation before making any turns.
• At least 90 m (295 ft) of obstacle clearance must be achieved before turns greater than 15° can be specified.

According to ICAO Annex 7 and national regulations, the registration mark may consist of letters, numbers, or a combination of both and is assigned by the State of Registry or common mark registering authority.

Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) is the lowest altitude that provides a specified clearance, usually 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 25 nautical miles of a given aerodrome or navigation aid. It is designed to ensure obstacle clearance in case of unexpected circumstances, such as an instrument failure or navigational deviation.

• MORA (Minimum Off-Route Altitude) provides terrain clearance for aircraft when flying off established routes.
• MOEA (Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude) applies to certain sectors and may vary based on route-specific conditions.

The Convention focuses on the liabilities and responsibilities of air carriers in cases of passenger injury, death, delay, and damage or loss of baggage or cargo. It also sets out rules for compensation and limits of liability in such instances. The operator’s responsibility is limited under specific conditions unless there is gross negligence or intentional misconduct.

The authority of the State of Registration is responsible for issuing the Certificate of Airworthiness. According to ICAO Annex 8: Airworthiness of Aircraft, the State of Registration is required to ensure that aircraft meet airworthiness standards and are issued this certificate.

While in India, the DGCA (Directorate General of Civil Aviation) plays a regulatory role in overseeing compliance with these standards, the certificate itself is issued by the State of Registration based on ICAO’s guidelines.

39C.  Period of validity of medical fitness Assessment and Licences  (1)  The period of validity of medical fitness assessment and licence in respect of various categories shall be as specified in the following table, namely:

(2)  The period of validity of the initial medical fitness assessment shall commence from the date of the medical examination.

(3) In case of renewal, the period of validity of medical fitness assessment  shall commence from the date following the date of expiry of the previous medical fitness assessment, subject to the condition that the medical examination for renewal has been conducted within a period of not more than one month preceding the date of expiry of the previous validity.

(4)  In cases other than those referred to in sub-rule (3), the validity of the renewal of the medical fitness assessment shall commence from the date of the medical examination.

(5) (a) The period of validity of medical fitness assessment in respect of the licences specified against items (i) and (ii) of the table under sub-rule (1) shall be reduced to half after the holder of the licence has attained the age of forty years in case of single crew commercial air transport operations and sixty years in case of multi-crew commercial air transport operations.

(b) The period of medical fitness assessment in respect of the licences specified against items (iv) of the table under sub-rule(1) shall be reduced to half after the holder of the licence has attained the age of fifty years.

(6) The period of validity of a licence shall commence from the date of issue of the licence.

(7) In case of renewal, the period of validity of the licence shall commence from the date following the date of expiry of the previous validity of the licence, subject to the condition that the application for renewal has been submitted within a period of not more than one month preceding the date of expiry of the previous validity.

(8) In cases other than those referred to in sub-rule (7), the validity of renewal of the licence shall commence from the date of renewal of the licence.

Accident analysis shows that aviation incidents typically result from a combination of factors, including human errors, technical failures, environmental conditions, and organizational issues. A single cause is rarely solely responsible for an accident.

7600

Remember. I C E

7500 – Interference hijacking

7600 – Comm failure

7700 – Emergency,

2000 – when no instructions given

Taxiway Centre Line Lights:

• Taxiway centre line lights are fixed, variable intensity lights that show green and are visible only from the aeroplanes on or in the vicinity of the taxiway.
• Within the ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area, the centre line lights alternate between green and yellow.

The alert phase (ALERFA) is declared when there is heightened concern for the safety of an aircraft or its occupants. Key triggers include:

• The aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes after being cleared.
• Communication attempts have failed after an uncertainty phase.
• The aircraft’s operating efficiency is impaired, though a forced landing is not likely.
• Reports of unlawful interference.

QNH is always read back. Following items shall always be read-back:

a) ATC route clearance;

b) Clearances and instructions to enter, land on, take off on, hold short of, cross taxi and back track on any runway;

c) Runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions and, whether issued by the controller or contained in ATIS broadcast, transition levels.

For an applicant holding a Private Pilot License (PPL) or Commercial Pilot License (CPL) in an aeroplane, to be eligible for an Instrument Rating (IR), the applicant must have completed 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command (PIC) of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing authority.

This is a key requirement to ensure that the applicant has the necessary experience in navigating and managing aircraft over long distances and under varying conditions before being authorized to fly under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR).

The risk of barotrauma of the middle ear is higher with colds and rapid descents. During descent, the Eustachian tube may fail to equalize pressure quickly, leading to discomfort or injury. Colds cause congestion, increasing the risk. Slow ascents or fast climbs are generally less problematic.

NOTAM REPLACE.

Apron Safety Lines:

• Apron safety lines, while not strictly taxiway markings, enhance the safe movement of aircraft into and out of parking stands.
• If all ground equipment and vehicles are parked behind the apron safety lines, pilots or marshals can ignore those obstacles when parking aircraft.
• These lines must be of a conspicuous color that contrasts with the color used for aircraft stand markings.

An aerodrome beacon is used to help pilots locate the aerodrome, particularly at night. Land aerodromes typically use white or white and green flashes, while water aerodromes use white or white and yellow flashes. These beacons are required if:

• Aircraft navigate predominantly by visual means.
• Reduced visibility is common.
• The aerodrome is hard to identify due to surrounding terrain or lights.